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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Urban local bodies.
74th Constitution Amendment Act of 1992 identifies 22 local level functions to be devolved to municipalities, including planning for economic and social development, regulation of land, construction of buildings, urban planningand public health.
Since the enactment of 74th Constitution Amendment Act, elections to urban local bodies is held once in every five years in all states in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
In some States, elections to urban local bodies have not been held for years, defeating the lofty goal of decentralised governance. The idea of giving more authority to the third tier of governance has suffered serious stunting, in spite of the 74th Constitution Amendment Act of 1992 identifying 18 local level functions to be devolved, including planning for economic and social development, regulation of land, construction of buildings, urban planning and public health.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
In some States, elections to urban local bodies have not been held for years, defeating the lofty goal of decentralised governance. The idea of giving more authority to the third tier of governance has suffered serious stunting, in spite of the 74th Constitution Amendment Act of 1992 identifying 18 local level functions to be devolved, including planning for economic and social development, regulation of land, construction of buildings, urban planning and public health.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding the role and functions of a Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
1)Speaker is a quasi-judicial body
2)Ultimate interpreter and arbiter of those provisions which relate to the functioning of the House.
3)Sole representative of the House in the international arena.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
The nature of duties of the Speaker, technically as an “arbiter” or a “quasi-judicial body” should not be limited exclusively to matters under the Tenth Schedule; rather, it extends to a range of its functions. While facilitating the business of the House and to maintain decorum in the House, the Speaker has ‘extensive functions to perform in matters regulatory, administrative and judicial, falling under her domain. She enjoys vast authority under the Constitution and the Rules, as well as inherently’.
She is the ‘ultimate interpreter and arbiter of those provisions which relate to the functioning of the House. Her decisions are final and binding and ordinarily cannot be easily challenged. She decides the duration of debates, can discipline members and even override decisions by committees. She represents the collective voice of the House and is the sole representative of the House in the international arena’.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The nature of duties of the Speaker, technically as an “arbiter” or a “quasi-judicial body” should not be limited exclusively to matters under the Tenth Schedule; rather, it extends to a range of its functions. While facilitating the business of the House and to maintain decorum in the House, the Speaker has ‘extensive functions to perform in matters regulatory, administrative and judicial, falling under her domain. She enjoys vast authority under the Constitution and the Rules, as well as inherently’.
She is the ‘ultimate interpreter and arbiter of those provisions which relate to the functioning of the House. Her decisions are final and binding and ordinarily cannot be easily challenged. She decides the duration of debates, can discipline members and even override decisions by committees. She represents the collective voice of the House and is the sole representative of the House in the international arena’.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Defection Law
1) The Tenth Schedule was inserted in The Constitution (Forty-second amendment) Act, 1976.
2) A legislator defying the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House.
3) The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote. This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote. This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
2 points
The Amending Act(1781) to the regulating act of 1773 had which of the following provisions?
1. Increase in jurisdiction of Supreme Court established by regulating Act 1773
2. Recognition of the appellate jurisdiction of the Governor-General in council
3. Enactment of a temporary Uniform Civil Code.
Select the correct code:
Correct
Solution: d)
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
2 points
Equality before law and equal protection of laws under Article 14 implies that
A law is for everyone whoever it might be.
A law will apply equally to equally situated people.
Select the correct answer code
Correct
Solution: c)
Article 14 has two parts: equality before law and equal protection of laws.
The first concept basically means law is for everyone whoever it might be.
The second concept means law will apply equally to equally situated people. For e.g. if an adult receives a punishment of 3 years imprisonment, another adult for the same crime and same circumstances should also get 3 years of imprisonment.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Article 14 has two parts: equality before law and equal protection of laws.
The first concept basically means law is for everyone whoever it might be.
The second concept means law will apply equally to equally situated people. For e.g. if an adult receives a punishment of 3 years imprisonment, another adult for the same crime and same circumstances should also get 3 years of imprisonment.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements
The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes
The term ‘untouchability’ has been defined in the Constitution under Article 17.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes or the scheduled tribes regarding their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, except the minority educational institutions.
The term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined in the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes or the scheduled tribes regarding their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, except the minority educational institutions.
The term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined in the Constitution.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
2 points
The fundamental right of “Freedom of speech and expression” has been interpreted by the law courts to include which of the following rights?
Right to know about government activities.
Freedom of silence.
Right to strike
Right against imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper.
Select the correct answer code:
Correct
Solution: b)
The freedom of speech and expression, in this context, includes:
Right to propagate one’s views as well as views of others.
Freedom of the press.
Freedom of commercial advertisements.
Right against tapping of telephonic conversation.
Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly on electronic media.
Right against bundh called by a political party or organisation.
Right to know about government activities.
Freedom of silence.
Right against imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper.
Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The freedom of speech and expression, in this context, includes:
Right to propagate one’s views as well as views of others.
Freedom of the press.
Freedom of commercial advertisements.
Right against tapping of telephonic conversation.
Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly on electronic media.
Right against bundh called by a political party or organisation.
Right to know about government activities.
Freedom of silence.
Right against imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper.
Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements.
Right to freedom of movement entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the country without any restrictions.
All citizens are given the right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Right to freedom of movement entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the country. The grounds of imposing reasonable restrictions on this freedom are two, namely, the interests of general public and the protection of interests of any scheduled tribe. The entry of outsiders in tribal areas is restricted to protect the distinctive culture, language, customs and manners of scheduled tribes and to safeguard their traditional vocation and properties against exploitation.
All citizens are given the right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. This right is very wide as it covers all the means of earning one’s livelihood.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Right to freedom of movement entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the country. The grounds of imposing reasonable restrictions on this freedom are two, namely, the interests of general public and the protection of interests of any scheduled tribe. The entry of outsiders in tribal areas is restricted to protect the distinctive culture, language, customs and manners of scheduled tribes and to safeguard their traditional vocation and properties against exploitation.
All citizens are given the right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. This right is very wide as it covers all the means of earning one’s livelihood.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
2 points
Article 22 confers which of the following rights for a person who is arrested or detained?
Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.
Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.
Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.
Select the correct answer code:
Correct
Solution: d)
The Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law.
(a) The first part of Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested or detained under an ordinary law:
(i) Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.
(ii) Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.
(iii) Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time.
(iv) Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.
These safeguards are not available to an alien or a person arrested or detained under a preventive detention law.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law.
(a) The first part of Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested or detained under an ordinary law:
(i) Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.
(ii) Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.
(iii) Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time.
(iv) Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.
These safeguards are not available to an alien or a person arrested or detained under a preventive detention law.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
2 points
The government introduced amendments to which of the following laws to introduce electoral bonds?
1)Representation of the People Act of 1951.
2)Income Tax Act of 1961.
3)Companies Act of 2013.
Select the correct answer code:
Correct
Solution: d)
Using the money bill route, the government introduced regressive amendments to laws, including the Income Tax Act of 1961, the Companies Act of 2013, and the Representation of the People Act of 1951, to introduce electoral bonds.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Using the money bill route, the government introduced regressive amendments to laws, including the Income Tax Act of 1961, the Companies Act of 2013, and the Representation of the People Act of 1951, to introduce electoral bonds.