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- April static quiz2023
29 April 2023
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29 April 2023 Static Quiz for UPSC Prelims
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 pointsRegarding the ‘Dying Declaration’ in the Indian judicialsystem, consider the following statements:
1. It is the statement of a person who is dying, explaining the circumstances of his/her death.
2. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not recognize the dying declaration made verbally.
3. It has to be recorded compulsorily in the presence of a Judicial or Executive Magistrate in India.Correct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• Statement 1 is correct. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
• Recently, a special CBI court convicted two policemen and awarded them life sentences for the
custodial death of a murder accused who was burnt alive inside a police station. The judgment relied
heavily on the ‘dying declaration’ made by the victim prior to his death.
• Statement 1 is correct. The Dying Declaration is the statement of a person who had died explaining the
circumstances of his death. A dying declaration is considered credible and trustworthy evidence, based
upon the general belief that most people who know that they are about to die, do not lie.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the cases related to that
person who is dead or who cannot be found. It defines dying declaration as a statement written or
verbal of relevant facts made by a person, who is dead. It is the statement of a person who had died
explaining the circumstances of his death.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Anyone can record the dying declaration of the deceased as per law. The law
does not compulsorily require the presence of a Judicial or Executive Magistrate to record a dying
declaration. The only requirement for such a declaration to be held perfectly accountable in court is for
the victim to volunteer the statement and be of conscious mind. The person who records the dying
declaration must be satisfied that the victim is in a fitstate of mind.Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• Statement 1 is correct. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
• Recently, a special CBI court convicted two policemen and awarded them life sentences for the
custodial death of a murder accused who was burnt alive inside a police station. The judgment relied
heavily on the ‘dying declaration’ made by the victim prior to his death.
• Statement 1 is correct. The Dying Declaration is the statement of a person who had died explaining the
circumstances of his death. A dying declaration is considered credible and trustworthy evidence, based
upon the general belief that most people who know that they are about to die, do not lie.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the cases related to that
person who is dead or who cannot be found. It defines dying declaration as a statement written or
verbal of relevant facts made by a person, who is dead. It is the statement of a person who had died
explaining the circumstances of his death.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Anyone can record the dying declaration of the deceased as per law. The law
does not compulsorily require the presence of a Judicial or Executive Magistrate to record a dying
declaration. The only requirement for such a declaration to be held perfectly accountable in court is for
the victim to volunteer the statement and be of conscious mind. The person who records the dying
declaration must be satisfied that the victim is in a fitstate of mind. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following cases/situations:
1. Criticising Parliament
2. Exciting hatred against the government established by Law
3. Violating the dignity of an individual
4. Sloganeering in favour of certain communities
5. Written Words showing disaffection towards the government
In which of the above cases, sedition law under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code would most
appropriately be applicable?Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
• Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Recently, the Supreme Court expressed concern about states withdrawing general consent to the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) for investigating cases. At present, eight states have withdrawn
general consent to the agency. The court observed this as “not a desirable position.”
• Statement 1 is correct. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) owes its origin to the Special Police
Establishment, constituted by the British government in 1941, which was substituted by the Delhi
Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. The CBI came into existence on 1 April, 1963, through a
Government of India resolution. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam
Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962-64).
• Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Section 24 of the RTI act, intelligence and security organizations
specified in the Second Schedule is exempted under the provisions of the act. However, Delhi high court
in 2017 has directed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to reveal information related to
corruption, so there is no absolute exemption.
• Also, the CIC has said that the CBI cannot take refuge in the exemption clause under the Right to
Information (RTI) Act to deny information related to corruption cases. Thus, they are not completely
exempted from the ambit of RTI.
• Statement 3 is correct. Section 5 of the DSPE Act empowers special police establishments (SPEs),
including CBI, to investigate cases in the states. Section 6 of the DSPE Act restricts the powers of SPEs
under section 5 and puts the condition of the consent of the state government to investigate any case in
that state. So, the CBI must mandatorily obtain the consent of the state government concerned before
beginning to investigate a crime in a state. Unlimited jurisdiction of CBI is confined to Union Territories
and Railway areas (and not to states), under this Act.
• Statement 4 is correct. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure in office by
the CVC Act, 2003.Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
• Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Recently, the Supreme Court expressed concern about states withdrawing general consent to the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) for investigating cases. At present, eight states have withdrawn
general consent to the agency. The court observed this as “not a desirable position.”
• Statement 1 is correct. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) owes its origin to the Special Police
Establishment, constituted by the British government in 1941, which was substituted by the Delhi
Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. The CBI came into existence on 1 April, 1963, through a
Government of India resolution. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam
Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962-64).
• Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Section 24 of the RTI act, intelligence and security organizations
specified in the Second Schedule is exempted under the provisions of the act. However, Delhi high court
in 2017 has directed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to reveal information related to
corruption, so there is no absolute exemption.
• Also, the CIC has said that the CBI cannot take refuge in the exemption clause under the Right to
Information (RTI) Act to deny information related to corruption cases. Thus, they are not completely
exempted from the ambit of RTI.
• Statement 3 is correct. Section 5 of the DSPE Act empowers special police establishments (SPEs),
including CBI, to investigate cases in the states. Section 6 of the DSPE Act restricts the powers of SPEs
under section 5 and puts the condition of the consent of the state government to investigate any case in
that state. So, the CBI must mandatorily obtain the consent of the state government concerned before
beginning to investigate a crime in a state. Unlimited jurisdiction of CBI is confined to Union Territories
and Railway areas (and not to states), under this Act.
• Statement 4 is correct. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure in office by
the CVC Act, 2003. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Parliamentary proceedings in India, which one of the following statements is
incorrect?Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
• Option C is correct.
• Statement A is correct. A session of Parliament consists of many meetings. Each meeting of a day
consists of two sittings, that is, a morning sitting from 11 am to 1 pm and post-lunch sitting from 2 pm to
6pm. A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by adjournment or adjournment sine die or prorogation
or dissolution (in the case of the Lok Sabha). An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a
specified time, which may be hours, days or weeks.
• Statement B is correct. The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine
die, when the business of a session is completed. Within the next few days, the President issues a
notification for prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in
session.
• Option C is incorrect. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite
period. In other words, when the House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called
adjournment sine die. The power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die lies with the presiding
officer of the House. S/He can also call a sitting of the House before the date or time to which it has
been adjourned or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.
• Option D is correct. The power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve the
Lok Sabha vests with the President (Article 85(2)(b)). Rajya Sabha, being a permanent House, is not
subject to dissolution. Only the Lok Sabha is subject to dissolution, Unlike a prorogation, a dissolution
ends the very life of the existing House, and a new House is constituted after general elections are held.Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
• Option C is correct.
• Statement A is correct. A session of Parliament consists of many meetings. Each meeting of a day
consists of two sittings, that is, a morning sitting from 11 am to 1 pm and post-lunch sitting from 2 pm to
6pm. A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by adjournment or adjournment sine die or prorogation
or dissolution (in the case of the Lok Sabha). An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a
specified time, which may be hours, days or weeks.
• Statement B is correct. The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine
die, when the business of a session is completed. Within the next few days, the President issues a
notification for prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in
session.
• Option C is incorrect. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite
period. In other words, when the House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called
adjournment sine die. The power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die lies with the presiding
officer of the House. S/He can also call a sitting of the House before the date or time to which it has
been adjourned or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.
• Option D is correct. The power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve the
Lok Sabha vests with the President (Article 85(2)(b)). Rajya Sabha, being a permanent House, is not
subject to dissolution. Only the Lok Sabha is subject to dissolution, Unlike a prorogation, a dissolution
ends the very life of the existing House, and a new House is constituted after general elections are held. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the INS Vikrant Aircraft Carrier:
1. At present, India has only one aircraft carrier, INS Vikramaditya, which is built on a
Russian platform.
2. INS Vikrant was built by India’s state-run Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
Ans b
INS Vikrant Aircraft Carrier is India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier and the largest warship to
have ever been built in India.
The ‘INS Vikramaditya’, which was commissioned in 2013 and till the introduction of Vikrant
was the Navy’s only aircraft carrier and started out as the Soviet-Russian warship ‘Admiral
Gorshkov’Incorrect
Ans b
INS Vikrant Aircraft Carrier is India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier and the largest warship to
have ever been built in India.
The ‘INS Vikramaditya’, which was commissioned in 2013 and till the introduction of Vikrant
was the Navy’s only aircraft carrier and started out as the Soviet-Russian warship ‘Admiral
Gorshkov’ -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
1. HIV is an infection that attacks the immune system by destroying the body’s CD4 cells.
2. Typically, the time between HIV transmission and AIDS diagnosis is 10-15 years,
although it may occur sooner.
3. HIV does not spread through breastmilk from an infected mother to child.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?Correct
Ans b
Bodily fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, rectal fluids and breastmilk can be carriers for
HIV.
It can be transmitted through unprotected sex, transfusion of contaminated blood, sharing
needles and syringes, and from a mother with HIV to her infant during pregnancy.Incorrect
Ans b
Bodily fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, rectal fluids and breastmilk can be carriers for
HIV.
It can be transmitted through unprotected sex, transfusion of contaminated blood, sharing
needles and syringes, and from a mother with HIV to her infant during pregnancy.
Leaderboard: 29 April 2023
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