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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
2 points
With respect to the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following statements:
1. As per this act, all public authorities must take steps to disclose information suo moto.
2. People below the poverty line can obtain information under the act without paying any fees.
3. NRIs are not eligible to file applications under the Right to Information (RTI)
Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
• Right to Information Act, 2005 was enacted with an aim to promote transparency and
accountability in the working of all public authorities, by empowering citizens to obtain
information from the public authorities.
• The law is comprehensive and covers disclosure of information on almost all matters of
governance. It is applicable to Government at all levels—Central, State and Local (both rural and
urban) and also to the bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the government, as
well as to the non-governmental organizations receiving government grants. It covers the
legislature, the judiciary, the executive and all constitutional bodies.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
• Right to Information Act, 2005 was enacted with an aim to promote transparency and
accountability in the working of all public authorities, by empowering citizens to obtain
information from the public authorities.
• The law is comprehensive and covers disclosure of information on almost all matters of
governance. It is applicable to Government at all levels—Central, State and Local (both rural and
urban) and also to the bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the government, as
well as to the non-governmental organizations receiving government grants. It covers the
legislature, the judiciary, the executive and all constitutional bodies.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
2 points
With reference to All India Services, consider the following statements:
1. State Services Officers are inducted into the All India Services through Union
Public Service Commission.
2. Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) is the cadre controlling authority of All India
Services.
3. There are now 24 State cadres including three Joint cadres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Vacancies for promotion/selection to
the All India Services(AIS) have been determined by the respective Cadre
• Controlling Authorities in consultation with the State Governments concerned,
• The vacancies to be filled under the Promotion Quota for each year are determined by the
Central
• Government in consultation with the respective State Government and the final appointments
are also made by the Central Government.
• The Central Government is the cadre controlling authority for the three All India Services. In
terms of the provisions of the respective IAS/IPS/IFS Promotion Regulations, the Central
Incorrect
Explanation
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Vacancies for promotion/selection to
the All India Services(AIS) have been determined by the respective Cadre
• Controlling Authorities in consultation with the State Governments concerned,
• The vacancies to be filled under the Promotion Quota for each year are determined by the
Central
• Government in consultation with the respective State Government and the final appointments
are also made by the Central Government.
• The Central Government is the cadre controlling authority for the three All India Services. In
terms of the provisions of the respective IAS/IPS/IFS Promotion Regulations, the Central
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
1. The governor of a State, with the previous approval of the President, is authorized to relieve the CAG from the responsibility for compiling the accounts of the State.
2. CAG compiles the accounts of all States except the State of Goa.
3. CAG can levy penalties on the government department for not sharing the desired information within a specified time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India (CAG) is provided under Article 148.
• He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department1. He is the guardian of the public
purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels—the Centre and
the state.
• Comptroller and Auditor General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971 defines
various provision related to the office of CAG.
• Sections 10 to 12 of the Act deal with the responsibility of the Comptroller and Auditor General
in relation to compilation of the accounts of the Union and the States and the UnionTerritories
with Legislatures.
• The second proviso to section 10 authorizes the Governor of a State to relieve the Comptroller
and Auditor General, with the previous approval of the President and after consultation with the
• Comptroller and Auditor General, by order, from the responsibility of compiling the accounts of
the State.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India (CAG) is provided under Article 148.
• He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department1. He is the guardian of the public
purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels—the Centre and
the state.
• Comptroller and Auditor General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971 defines
various provision related to the office of CAG.
• Sections 10 to 12 of the Act deal with the responsibility of the Comptroller and Auditor General
in relation to compilation of the accounts of the Union and the States and the UnionTerritories
with Legislatures.
• The second proviso to section 10 authorizes the Governor of a State to relieve the Comptroller
and Auditor General, with the previous approval of the President and after consultation with the
• Comptroller and Auditor General, by order, from the responsibility of compiling the accounts of
the State.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
2 points
The Fazl Ali commission was associated with
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
• Option D is correct. The States Reorganization Commission (1953-55) is also known as Fazl Ali
commission. It made a recommendation with respect to Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in
Part XVII of the Constitution for Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
• Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
• The commission was headed by the retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, Fazal Ali; its
other two members were H. N. Kunzru and K. M. Panikkar.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
• Option D is correct. The States Reorganization Commission (1953-55) is also known as Fazl Ali
commission. It made a recommendation with respect to Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in
Part XVII of the Constitution for Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
• Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
• The commission was headed by the retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, Fazal Ali; its
other two members were H. N. Kunzru and K. M. Panikkar.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
2 points
The Constitution has laid down which of the following provisions as qualifications for a person to be appointed as district judge?
1. An advocate or a pleader for at least seven years.
2. Not already in the service of either the Union of India or of the State.
3. Recommended by the governor of a state/states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Article 233 says:
• Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.
• A person not already in the service of the Union or of the State shall only be eligible to be appointed a district judge if he has been for not less than seven years an advocate or a pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Article 233 says:
• Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.
• A person not already in the service of the Union or of the State shall only be eligible to be appointed a district judge if he has been for not less than seven years an advocate or a pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
2 points
Which of the following privileges is/are available only to recognized parties?
1. They can select a symbol from a list of “free symbols” specified by the Election Commission.
2. They are allowed to have “star campaigners” during the time of elections whose travel expenses
are not included in the election expenditure of the candidates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Both the statements are incorrect.
• The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance. The other parties are simply declared as registered-unrecognized parties.
• The recognition granted by the Commission to the parties determines their right to certain privileges like allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned television and radio stations and access to electoral rolls.
• The nomination of a candidate in a parliamentary or assembly constituency should be subscribed
by 10 registered electors of the constituency as proposers, if the candidate is not sponsored by a
recognized political party. In the case of a candidate sponsored by recognised political party, only
one proposer is required.
• Also, these parties are allowed to have forty “star campaigners” during the time of elections and
the registered–unrecognized parties are allowed to have twenty “star campaigners”. The travel
expenses of these star campaigners are not included in the election expenditure of the candidates
of their parties.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Both the statements are incorrect.
• The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance. The other parties are simply declared as registered-unrecognized parties.
• The recognition granted by the Commission to the parties determines their right to certain privileges like allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned television and radio stations and access to electoral rolls.
• The nomination of a candidate in a parliamentary or assembly constituency should be subscribed
by 10 registered electors of the constituency as proposers, if the candidate is not sponsored by a
recognized political party. In the case of a candidate sponsored by recognised political party, only
one proposer is required.
• Also, these parties are allowed to have forty “star campaigners” during the time of elections and
the registered–unrecognized parties are allowed to have twenty “star campaigners”. The travel
expenses of these star campaigners are not included in the election expenditure of the candidates
of their parties.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
2 points
Which one of the following schedules of the Indian constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories?
Correct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
• Schedules are tables which contains additional details not mentioned in the articles. Indian
Constitution originally had eight schedules. Hence, the correct answer is B.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
• Schedules are tables which contains additional details not mentioned in the articles. Indian
Constitution originally had eight schedules. Hence, the correct answer is B.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
2 points
With reference to Tribunals in India, consider the following statements:
1. They are part of the Integrated Judiciary System of India.
2. They do not cover the employees of the Public Sector Undertakings
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Tribunals are not part of the integrated judicial system of India. At the time of the enactment of the Constitution, there was no mention of the tribunals. They were added to the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 (new Part XIV-A). The Integrated judicial system provides for Supreme court at the top and the State High Courts below it.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 323A empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Centre, the states, local bodies, public corporations and other public authorities. Thus, Article 323 A enables the Parliament to take out the adjudication of disputes relating to service matters from the civil courts and the high courts and place it before the administrative tribunals.
Incorrect
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
2 points
Which of the following languages are specified in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
1. Nepali
2. Urdu
3. Santhali
4. Tulu
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
• The Eighth Schedule to the constitution of India lists the official languages of India. Although there are hundreds of languages spoken across the country, the eighth schedule recognises a total of 22 languages as the official languages.
• At present (2016), the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution specifies 22 languages (originally 14 languages). These are Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. Hence, the
correct answer is D.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
• The Eighth Schedule to the constitution of India lists the official languages of India. Although there are hundreds of languages spoken across the country, the eighth schedule recognises a total of 22 languages as the official languages.
• At present (2016), the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution specifies 22 languages (originally 14 languages). These are Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. Hence, the
correct answer is D.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
2 points
Which of the following committees had contributed directly to evolution of Panchayati Raj system in India?
1. Thungon Committee
2. G V K Rao Committee
3. L M Singhvi Committee
4. JVP Committee
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
• The JVP Committee (Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallahbhai Patel, Pattabhi Sitaramayya)committee was
not associated with the evolution of panchayati raj institutions. The following committees
contributed in the evolution of the panchayati raj institutions:
1. Ashok Mehta Committee
2. G V K Rao Committee
3. L M Singhvi Committee
4. Thungon Committee
5. Gadgil Committee
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
• The JVP Committee (Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallahbhai Patel, Pattabhi Sitaramayya)committee was
not associated with the evolution of panchayati raj institutions. The following committees
contributed in the evolution of the panchayati raj institutions:
1. Ashok Mehta Committee
2. G V K Rao Committee
3. L M Singhvi Committee
4. Thungon Committee
5. Gadgil Committee
