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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
2 points
With reference to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1993, consider the following statements:
1.It created a three-tier system of panchayats in all the states.
2.The act provides the subjects on which the Gram panchayats are allowed to levy taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Article 243B, three-tier panchayat system, at the village, intermediate and district level, shall be created only in a state having a population above twenty lakhs. In a state having a population below 20 lakhs panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 243H provides that the legislature of a state may, by law, authorise a panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes,
duties, tolls and fees. The state legislature may also assign to a panchayat such taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the
State Government.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth. Chapter: Panchayati Raj
Sub) Polity, Indian Constitution, Panchayati Raj – functions vs Parastatal institutions
Incorrect
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Article 243B, three-tier panchayat system, at the village, intermediate and district level, shall be created only in a state having a population above twenty lakhs. In a state having a population below 20 lakhs panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 243H provides that the legislature of a state may, by law, authorise a panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes,
duties, tolls and fees. The state legislature may also assign to a panchayat such taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the
State Government.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth. Chapter: Panchayati Raj
Sub) Polity, Indian Constitution, Panchayati Raj – functions vs Parastatal institutions
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with reference to administration of Satavahanas:
1.Ahara was the lowest unit of administration.
2.Gaulmika was the head of military regiment.
3.Kataka was a military camp which served as an administrative centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Grama was the lowest unit of administration which was under gramika. Satavahana
kingdom was divided into subdivisions called aharas or rashtras, meaning districts. Ahara was divided into
Grama.
Statement 2 is correct. Gaulmika was the head of military regiment consisting of nine chariots, nine
elephants, 25 horses and 45 foot soldiers. He was the administrator in the rural areas.
Statement 3 is correct. Katakas and Skandhavaras were military camps and settlements which served as administrative
centres as long as king was present there. Knowledge Base: Satavahanas became prominent in the Indian
political scene sometime in the middle of the first century BC. Gautamiputra Satakarni (first century AD) is
considered to be the greatest of the Satavahana rulers. He is credited with the extension of Satavahana dominions
by defeating Nahapana, the Shaka ruler of Western India. His kingdom is said to have extended from river
Krishna in south to river Godavari in north. The Satavahanas had their capital at Pratishthana (modern
Paithan) near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.
Incorrect
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Grama was the lowest unit of administration which was under gramika. Satavahana
kingdom was divided into subdivisions called aharas or rashtras, meaning districts. Ahara was divided into
Grama.
Statement 2 is correct. Gaulmika was the head of military regiment consisting of nine chariots, nine
elephants, 25 horses and 45 foot soldiers. He was the administrator in the rural areas.
Statement 3 is correct. Katakas and Skandhavaras were military camps and settlements which served as administrative
centres as long as king was present there. Knowledge Base: Satavahanas became prominent in the Indian
political scene sometime in the middle of the first century BC. Gautamiputra Satakarni (first century AD) is
considered to be the greatest of the Satavahana rulers. He is credited with the extension of Satavahana dominions
by defeating Nahapana, the Shaka ruler of Western India. His kingdom is said to have extended from river
Krishna in south to river Godavari in north. The Satavahanas had their capital at Pratishthana (modern
Paithan) near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
2 points
It has been upgraded to National Park from Wildlife Sanctuary recently to protect the sanctity of
area from coal and oil mining exploration. It is also known as Jeypore forest having fauna like Malayan sun bear
and marbled cat. It is also referred as The Amazon of East and is home to Asiatic Elephants. The national park
mentioned here is:
Correct
Ans) a
Incorrect
Ans) a
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
2 points
This body can alter the boundary of constituencies for the purpose of conduction of election. This is
a high-power body whose orders have the force of law. Its orders cannot be questioned in a court of law.
Which of the following institution matches the description given above?
Correct
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
The Delimitation commission is established by the Government of India under the provisions of the
Delimitation Commission Act. The function of the commission is to set or redraw the boundaries of the various assembly and
Lok Sabha constituencies based on the recent census.
The Commission is a powerful and independent body whose orders cannot be challenged in any court of law.
The orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective State Legislative Assemblies. However,
modifications are not permitted.
Incorrect
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
The Delimitation commission is established by the Government of India under the provisions of the
Delimitation Commission Act. The function of the commission is to set or redraw the boundaries of the various assembly and
Lok Sabha constituencies based on the recent census.
The Commission is a powerful and independent body whose orders cannot be challenged in any court of law.
The orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective State Legislative Assemblies. However,
modifications are not permitted.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
2 points
With reference to the Globally Important Agriculture Heritage systems (GIAHS), consider the following statements:
1.The World Food Programme recognizes the Globally Important Agriculture Heritage systems (GIAHS) among different countries.
2.Traditional Agricultural System in Koraput and Below Sea Level Farming System in Kuttanad, are the only GIAHS-designated sites in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Relevance: United Nations’ FAO names 4 Asian tea cultivation sites as Globally Important Agri
Heritage Systems
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) leads the GIAHS Programme,
which is intended for the identification and enhancement of the benefits of these dynamic systems to mitigate the
threats they face.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In our country so far, the following sites have received recognition under this
programme: Traditional Agricultural System, Koraput, Odisha, Below Sea Level Farming
System, Kuttanad, Kerala, Saffron heritage of Kashmir in Pampore region.
Incorrect
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Relevance: United Nations’ FAO names 4 Asian tea cultivation sites as Globally Important Agri
Heritage Systems
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) leads the GIAHS Programme,
which is intended for the identification and enhancement of the benefits of these dynamic systems to mitigate the
threats they face.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In our country so far, the following sites have received recognition under this
programme: Traditional Agricultural System, Koraput, Odisha, Below Sea Level Farming
System, Kuttanad, Kerala, Saffron heritage of Kashmir in Pampore region.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
2 points
Which among the following organisations publishes the Global Terrorism Index
Correct
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
The Global Terrorism Index is annually published by the Institute for Economics & Peace (IEP). IEP is an
independent, non-partisan, non-profit think tank dedicated to shifting the world’s focus to peace as a positive,
achievable, and tangible measure of human well-being and progress. IEP is headquartered in Sydney, Australia and
it works with a wide range of partners internationally and collaborates with intergovernmental
organisations on measuring and communicating the economic value of peace.
India was ranked at 8th position, with the score of 7.353, in Global Terrorism Index 2020. India has the lowest
number of terrorism deaths among the ten countries most affected by terrorism, and the lowest lethality rate of
attacks. But compared to other countries amongst the ten most impacted, India faces a wider range of terrorist groups,
with Islamist, communist, and separatist groups active across the country.
Incorrect
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
The Global Terrorism Index is annually published by the Institute for Economics & Peace (IEP). IEP is an
independent, non-partisan, non-profit think tank dedicated to shifting the world’s focus to peace as a positive,
achievable, and tangible measure of human well-being and progress. IEP is headquartered in Sydney, Australia and
it works with a wide range of partners internationally and collaborates with intergovernmental
organisations on measuring and communicating the economic value of peace.
India was ranked at 8th position, with the score of 7.353, in Global Terrorism Index 2020. India has the lowest
number of terrorism deaths among the ten countries most affected by terrorism, and the lowest lethality rate of
attacks. But compared to other countries amongst the ten most impacted, India faces a wider range of terrorist groups,
with Islamist, communist, and separatist groups active across the country.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements about Bharat QR code:
1.It is a single unified QR code capable of accepting payments from Visa, MasterCard, RuPay Cards.
2.It requires an upfront investment in form of Point of Sale (PoS) machine.
3.It has been developed by Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct
Statement 1 is correct. Bharat QR code is an interoperable payment acceptance solution that supports Visa,
MasterCard. Amex and RuPay cards & BHIM-UPI for wider acceptance.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bharat QR code does not require any upfront expenditure as it uses a printed QR
code and customer uses mobile phone to make the payment.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Bharat QR code has been developed by National Payments Corporation of India, Master
card and Visa.
Incorrect
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct
Statement 1 is correct. Bharat QR code is an interoperable payment acceptance solution that supports Visa,
MasterCard. Amex and RuPay cards & BHIM-UPI for wider acceptance.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bharat QR code does not require any upfront expenditure as it uses a printed QR
code and customer uses mobile phone to make the payment.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Bharat QR code has been developed by National Payments Corporation of India, Master
card and Visa.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
2 points
With reference to the Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy) Amendment Rules, 2021, consider the following:
1.CSR funds cannot be spent for creation or acquisition of capital asset.
2.Every entity undertaking CSR activities must register itself with the central government.
3.All companies will have to prepare an impact assessment report for all CSR projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 2021 Rules add that CSR funds may be spent for creation or acquisition of capital asset, which can be
held by: (a) a trust or society with a CSR registration number, (b) beneficiaries of the CSR project, (c) public
authority.
Statement 2 is correct: A company can undertake CSR: (a) by itself, or in conjunction with a trust or society
established by the company, or (b) through an entity, trust or society established by the central or state government, or (c)
through a registered trust or society with a track record of at least three years of similar activities. The
latest rules require every entity undertaking CSR activities to register itself with the central government
with effect from April 1, 2021.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Companies whose CSR obligation is greater than ten crore rupees will have to
prepare an impact assessment report for all CSR projects where expenditure is greater than one crore
rupees.
Incorrect
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 2021 Rules add that CSR funds may be spent for creation or acquisition of capital asset, which can be
held by: (a) a trust or society with a CSR registration number, (b) beneficiaries of the CSR project, (c) public
authority.
Statement 2 is correct: A company can undertake CSR: (a) by itself, or in conjunction with a trust or society
established by the company, or (b) through an entity, trust or society established by the central or state government, or (c)
through a registered trust or society with a track record of at least three years of similar activities. The
latest rules require every entity undertaking CSR activities to register itself with the central government
with effect from April 1, 2021.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Companies whose CSR obligation is greater than ten crore rupees will have to
prepare an impact assessment report for all CSR projects where expenditure is greater than one crore
rupees.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
2 points
With reference to the Odissi dance, consider the following:
1.Odhra Magadha can be identified as the earliest precursor of Odissi.
2.The tribhanga and the chowk posture are some of the prominent features of Odissi dance.
3.Mangalacharan an offering to mother earth, is the opening item of the dance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. The Natya Shastra of Bharat Muni mentions many regional varieties, such as the south-eastern style
known as the Odhra Magadha which can be identified as the earliest precursor of present day Odissi. It was
primarily practised by the ‘maharis’ or the temple dancers and patronised by the Jain king Kheravela.
Statement 2 is correct. The tribhanga posture, i.e. the three-bended form of the body is innate to Odissi dance form. Also, the ‘Chowk’ posture
with hands spread out depicts masculinity. Odissi dance form is unique in its representation of gracefulness,
sensuality and beauty. The dancers create intricate geometrical shapes and patterns with her body. Hence, it is
known as ‘mobile sculpture’.
Statement 3 is correct. The opening item is Mangalacharan where the dancer slowly enters the stage with flowers in her hands and
makes an offering to mother earth. This is followed by an invocation to the deity of the dancer’s choice. The
concluding item of the dance is called moksha.
Incorrect
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. The Natya Shastra of Bharat Muni mentions many regional varieties, such as the south-eastern style
known as the Odhra Magadha which can be identified as the earliest precursor of present day Odissi. It was
primarily practised by the ‘maharis’ or the temple dancers and patronised by the Jain king Kheravela.
Statement 2 is correct. The tribhanga posture, i.e. the three-bended form of the body is innate to Odissi dance form. Also, the ‘Chowk’ posture
with hands spread out depicts masculinity. Odissi dance form is unique in its representation of gracefulness,
sensuality and beauty. The dancers create intricate geometrical shapes and patterns with her body. Hence, it is
known as ‘mobile sculpture’.
Statement 3 is correct. The opening item is Mangalacharan where the dancer slowly enters the stage with flowers in her hands and
makes an offering to mother earth. This is followed by an invocation to the deity of the dancer’s choice. The
concluding item of the dance is called moksha.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with respect to financial decentralization during the British rule in India?
1.Lord Ripon divided the sources of revenue in three groups, Imperial, Provincial and Local.
2.Provincial and Central budget got separated by the Government of India Act 1919.
3.Government of India act 1935, had the provision for Grants-in-aid to the provinces.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is correct: plastics exposed to sea water tends to concentrate toxic and non-toxic organic compounds present in the
sea water at low concentrations. These, including PCBs, DDT, and nonylphenols, have very high partition
coefficients and are very efficiently concentrated in the plastic material.
Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) defines microplastics as plastic
particles smaller than 5 millimetre. Microplastics are intentionally added in primary sources such as
personal care products and clothing products; or secondary sources that are formed by fragmentation of
plastic over a period of time.
Statement 3 is correct: It was estimated that global production of plastics is approximately 250mt/yr. Their
abundance has been found to transport persistent organic pollutants, also known as POPs. These
pollutants have been linked to an increased distribution of algae associated with red tides.
Incorrect
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is correct: plastics exposed to sea water tends to concentrate toxic and non-toxic organic compounds present in the
sea water at low concentrations. These, including PCBs, DDT, and nonylphenols, have very high partition
coefficients and are very efficiently concentrated in the plastic material.
Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) defines microplastics as plastic
particles smaller than 5 millimetre. Microplastics are intentionally added in primary sources such as
personal care products and clothing products; or secondary sources that are formed by fragmentation of
plastic over a period of time.
Statement 3 is correct: It was estimated that global production of plastics is approximately 250mt/yr. Their
abundance has been found to transport persistent organic pollutants, also known as POPs. These
pollutants have been linked to an increased distribution of algae associated with red tides.
