05th February 2023 Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
2 points
What is ‘Blue Duke’, recently in the news?
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Option D is correct. Recently, Blue Duke has been declared as State Butterfly of Sikkim.
Blue Duke is a native butterfly species of Sikkim. It represents Sikkim with its two unique colours. Blue colour represents sky while white colour depicts snow clad mountains of Himalayas. Blue Duke is found in Himalayas, at an altitude below 1,500 metres. Blue Duke is listed in Schedule 2 of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. It is a highly protected species of butterfly in the Himalayas. Butterflies maintain the ecosystem by acting as pollinator, prey, biological pest c ontrol, induce genetic variation in plants, and enhance environmental beauty, reduce the level of carbon dioxide in air.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Option D is correct. Recently, Blue Duke has been declared as State Butterfly of Sikkim.
Blue Duke is a native butterfly species of Sikkim. It represents Sikkim with its two unique colours. Blue colour represents sky while white colour depicts snow clad mountains of Himalayas. Blue Duke is found in Himalayas, at an altitude below 1,500 metres. Blue Duke is listed in Schedule 2 of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. It is a highly protected species of butterfly in the Himalayas. Butterflies maintain the ecosystem by acting as pollinator, prey, biological pest c ontrol, induce genetic variation in plants, and enhance environmental beauty, reduce the level of carbon dioxide in air.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
2 points
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MEITY) has released a fresh draft of the amendment to the Information Technology (IT) Rules 2021. In this regard, consider the following statements:
1. It provides for the intermediaries to address certain complaints regarding the removal of content from a platform within 2 hours.
2. The users will have the right to directly approach a court of law against the intermediary’s decision.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Only statement 2 is correct, 1 is not correct.
IT Amendment Rules, 2021
• It requires intermediaries to respect rights guaranteed to users under the Constitution of India. This has been added because a number of intermediaries have acted in violation of the constitutional rights of Indian citizens.
• Government has proposed the requirement by intermediaries to address certain complaints regarding the removal of content from a platform within 72 hours. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• This is because there are chances of something becoming viral. Any other grievance will continue to be addressed within 15 days.
• Government has proposed to bring in a new Grievance Appellate Committee which is aimed to give users an additional mechanism to appeal decisions made by grievance officers of intermediaries.
Note: Even after this amendment, the users will have the right to directly approach a court of law against the intermediary’s decision. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Only statement 2 is correct, 1 is not correct.
IT Amendment Rules, 2021
• It requires intermediaries to respect rights guaranteed to users under the Constitution of India. This has been added because a number of intermediaries have acted in violation of the constitutional rights of Indian citizens.
• Government has proposed the requirement by intermediaries to address certain complaints regarding the removal of content from a platform within 72 hours. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• This is because there are chances of something becoming viral. Any other grievance will continue to be addressed within 15 days.
• Government has proposed to bring in a new Grievance Appellate Committee which is aimed to give users an additional mechanism to appeal decisions made by grievance officers of intermediaries.
Note: Even after this amendment, the users will have the right to directly approach a court of law against the intermediary’s decision. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
2 points
Which of the given statements regarding the Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of Ministry of Commerce and Industry promoting indigenous defence manufacturing.
2. It helps firms in reducing production costs upto 90%, improving functionality and quality.
Select the correct options
Correct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Only statement 2 is correct, 1 is not correct. Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme
• Aim: Creating an ecosystem for promoting self-reliance by building indigenous state-of-the-art systems for defence application.
• The scheme will provide a major fillip to the defence manufacturing sector by promoting selfreliance under the Make in India initiative.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Defence, Executing Agency: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Features:
1. Under the Scheme, DRDO extends financial support and expertise to upgrade existing products/ systems, processes, and applications.
2. It helps firms in reducing production costs, improving functionality and quality.
3. The participation of public/private industries especially MSMEs and Startups is encouraged.
4. It earlier, it was subject to the upper limit of Rs 10 crores, which facilitates up to 90% of the total project cost is increased to Rs 50 crores now. Hence statement 2 is correct.
5. An entity with more than 49% foreign investment will not be eligible.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Only statement 2 is correct, 1 is not correct. Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme
• Aim: Creating an ecosystem for promoting self-reliance by building indigenous state-of-the-art systems for defence application.
• The scheme will provide a major fillip to the defence manufacturing sector by promoting selfreliance under the Make in India initiative.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Defence, Executing Agency: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Features:
1. Under the Scheme, DRDO extends financial support and expertise to upgrade existing products/ systems, processes, and applications.
2. It helps firms in reducing production costs, improving functionality and quality.
3. The participation of public/private industries especially MSMEs and Startups is encouraged.
4. It earlier, it was subject to the upper limit of Rs 10 crores, which facilitates up to 90% of the total project cost is increased to Rs 50 crores now. Hence statement 2 is correct.
5. An entity with more than 49% foreign investment will not be eligible.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
2 points
The Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has launched a project named National Initiative for Promoting Upskilling of Nirman workers (NIPUN). In this regard, consider the following statements:
1. The basic motive of the project is to train over 1 Crore construction workers, through fresh skilling and upskilling programs.
2. This project is running under the flagship programme of the Deendayal Antyodaya YojanaNational Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM)
3. It seeks to provide international placement through industries/ builders/ contractors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is not correct.
Project Nipun
• The basic motive of the project is to train over 1 lakh construction workers, through fresh skilling and upskilling programmes. Hence statement 1 is NOT correct.
• This project is running under the flagship programme of the Deendayal Antyodaya YojanaNational Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The transformational impact of the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) has reduced the vulnerability of urban poor households by providing upskilling and employment opportunities to urban dwellers, especially the youth.
• Implementing Agency: National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
1. NSDC is the nodal agency and workers under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
2. NSDC will be responsible for the overall execution of training, monitoring and candidate tracking.
• The project implementation is divided into three parts:
1. Training through Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) at construction sites
2. Training through Fresh Skilling by Plumbing and Infrastructure Sector Skill Council (SSC).
3. International Placement through industries/ builders/ contractors
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is not correct.
Project Nipun
• The basic motive of the project is to train over 1 lakh construction workers, through fresh skilling and upskilling programmes. Hence statement 1 is NOT correct.
• This project is running under the flagship programme of the Deendayal Antyodaya YojanaNational Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The transformational impact of the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) has reduced the vulnerability of urban poor households by providing upskilling and employment opportunities to urban dwellers, especially the youth.
• Implementing Agency: National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
1. NSDC is the nodal agency and workers under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
2. NSDC will be responsible for the overall execution of training, monitoring and candidate tracking.
• The project implementation is divided into three parts:
1. Training through Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) at construction sites
2. Training through Fresh Skilling by Plumbing and Infrastructure Sector Skill Council (SSC).
3. International Placement through industries/ builders/ contractors
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
2 points
The Government of India in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to issue Sovereign Gold Bonds in tranches for 2022-23. Consider the following statements regarding the Sovereign Gold Bonds Scheme:
1. The Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the RBI Act, 1934.
2. These are issued by the RBI directly on behalf of the Government of India.
3. Minimum permissible investment is 1 gram of gold.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is not correct.
Sovereign Gold Bonds Scheme
• The Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the Government Securities (GS) Act, 2006. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• These are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Bonds are sold through Commercial banks, Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL), designated post offices and recognized stock exchanges viz., National Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock Exchange, either directly or through agents.
• The bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), trusts, universities and charitable institutions.
• Gold bond prices are linked to the price of gold of 999 purity (24 carats) published by India Bullion and Jewellers Association (IBJA), Mumbai.
• Gold bonds can be purchased in the multiples of one unit, up to certain thresholds for different investors.
• The upper limit for retail (individual) investors and HUFs is 4 kilograms (4,000 units) each per financial year. For trusts and similar entities, an upper limit of 20 kilograms per financial year is applicable.
• Minimum permissible investment is 1 gram of gold. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is not correct.
Sovereign Gold Bonds Scheme
• The Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the Government Securities (GS) Act, 2006. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• These are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Bonds are sold through Commercial banks, Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL), designated post offices and recognized stock exchanges viz., National Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock Exchange, either directly or through agents.
• The bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), trusts, universities and charitable institutions.
• Gold bond prices are linked to the price of gold of 999 purity (24 carats) published by India Bullion and Jewellers Association (IBJA), Mumbai.
• Gold bonds can be purchased in the multiples of one unit, up to certain thresholds for different investors.
• The upper limit for retail (individual) investors and HUFs is 4 kilograms (4,000 units) each per financial year. For trusts and similar entities, an upper limit of 20 kilograms per financial year is applicable.
• Minimum permissible investment is 1 gram of gold. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
2 points
6) The Union Finance Ministry is working to expand and relaunch the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) by bringing in more representatives from the insurance sector. In this regard, consider the following statements:
1. It was set up in 2016 as an autonomous body.
2. The RBI-appointed Raghuram Rajan Committee had recommended for its establishment.
3. It was part of the Indradhanush Plan.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Banks Board Bureau (BBB)
• It was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body– based on the recommendations of the RBI-appointed Nayak Committee.
• It was part of the Indradhanush Plan.
• It will make recommendations for the appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and state-owned financial institutions.
• The Ministry of Finance takes the final decision on the appointments in consultation with the Prime Minister’s Office.
• Banks Board Bureau comprises the Chairman, three ex-officio members’ i.e Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises, Secretary of the Department of Financial Services and Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, and five expert members, two of which are from the private sector.
Incorrect
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
2 points
7) The centre has declared the IT resources of ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank and UPI managing entity NPCI as ‘Critical Information Infrastructure’. In this regard consider the following statements:
1. The Information Technology Act of 2000 explicitly defines Critical Information Infrastructure.
2. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-IN or ICERT) is the nodal agency for taking all measures to protect the nation’s critical information infrastructure.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Only statement 1 is correct, 2 is not correct.
Critical Information Infrastructure
• The Information Technology Act of 2000 defines “Critical Information Infrastructure” as a computer resource, the incapacitation or destruction of which shall have a debilitating impact on national security, economy, public health or safety. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Under the Act, the Union Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) has the power to declare any data, database and IT network or communications infrastructure as CII to protect that digital asset. Created in January 2014, the National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) is the nodal agency for taking all measures to protect the nation’s critical information infrastructure. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-IN or ICERT) is an office within the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology of the Government of India. It is the nodal agency to deal with cyber security threats like hacking and phishing. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
2 points
With reference to the Salt Industry in India, which of the given statements is/are correct?
1. The subject ‘Salt’ is under the State List of the 7th schedule.
2. India is a leading producer of Salt in the world.
3. Gujarat produces more than 80% of the country’s total salt production.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct, 2 and 3 are correct.
Salt Industry in India
• Salt is under the Union List of the 7th schedule. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• India ranks third in the production of salt in the world next to the USA and China. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Sea salt constitutes about 70% of the total salt production in the country.
• Salt manufacturing activities are carried out in the coastal states of Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Orissa, West Bengal Goa and hinterland State of Rajasthan.
• Gujarat produces about 28.5 million tonnes of salt per year which is more than 80% of the country’s total production. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• In Himachal and Rajasthan, salt is harvested by mining while in other states including Gujarat, salt is produced through a solar-evaporation process of seawater.
• Salt Commissioner’s Organisation (an attached Office under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry).
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct, 2 and 3 are correct.
Salt Industry in India
• Salt is under the Union List of the 7th schedule. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• India ranks third in the production of salt in the world next to the USA and China. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Sea salt constitutes about 70% of the total salt production in the country.
• Salt manufacturing activities are carried out in the coastal states of Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Orissa, West Bengal Goa and hinterland State of Rajasthan.
• Gujarat produces about 28.5 million tonnes of salt per year which is more than 80% of the country’s total production. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• In Himachal and Rajasthan, salt is harvested by mining while in other states including Gujarat, salt is produced through a solar-evaporation process of seawater.
• Salt Commissioner’s Organisation (an attached Office under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry).
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
2 points
Recently the Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways has approved the Draft GSR Notification to introduce Bharat NCAP (New Car Assessment Program). With reference to this, consider the following statements:
1. It will be applicable on type-approved motor vehicles of category M1 with gross vehicle weight less than 3.5 tonnes, manufactured or imported in the country.
2. M1 category motor vehicles are used for the carriage of passengers, comprising eight seats, in addition to driver’s seat.
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Both statements are correct.
What is Bharat NCAP?
• Bharat NCAP is a new car safety assessment programme which proposes a mechanism of awarding ‘Star Ratings’ to automobiles based upon their performance in crash tests.
• BNCAP standard is aligned with global benchmarks and it is beyond minimum regulatory requirements.
• The proposed Bharat NCAP assessment will allocate Star Ratings from 1 to 5 stars.
• The testing of vehicles for this programme will be carried out at testing agencies, with the necessary infrastructure.
Its implementation
• BNCAP will be rolled out from April 1, 2023.
• It will be applicable on type-approved motor vehicles of category M1 with gross vehicle weight less than 3.5 tonnes, manufactured or imported in the country.
• M1 category motor vehicles are used for the carriage of passengers, comprising eight seats, in addition to driver’s seat.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Both statements are correct.
What is Bharat NCAP?
• Bharat NCAP is a new car safety assessment programme which proposes a mechanism of awarding ‘Star Ratings’ to automobiles based upon their performance in crash tests.
• BNCAP standard is aligned with global benchmarks and it is beyond minimum regulatory requirements.
• The proposed Bharat NCAP assessment will allocate Star Ratings from 1 to 5 stars.
• The testing of vehicles for this programme will be carried out at testing agencies, with the necessary infrastructure.
Its implementation
• BNCAP will be rolled out from April 1, 2023.
• It will be applicable on type-approved motor vehicles of category M1 with gross vehicle weight less than 3.5 tonnes, manufactured or imported in the country.
• M1 category motor vehicles are used for the carriage of passengers, comprising eight seats, in addition to driver’s seat.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
2 points
Investment in the Indian capital markets through Participatory Notes (P-notes) has seen a consistent drop. In this regard, consider the following statements:
1. P-notes are Onshore Derivative Instruments (ODIs).
2. They are issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to domestic as well as overseas investors.
3. P-notes have Indian stocks as their underlying assets.
4. P-note are not regulated in India
Correct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are not correct.
Participatory Notes (P-Notes)
• P-notes are Offshore Derivative Instruments (ODIs). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• They are issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to overseas investors who wish to be a part of the Indian stock markets without registering themselves directly. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• P-notes have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• FPIs are non-residents who invest in Indian securities like shares, government bonds, corporate bonds, etc.
• Though P-note holders have less stringent registration requirements, they have to go through a proper due diligence process of the Security and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Hence statement 4 is not correct.
